The 15th Amendment says,
Section 1. The right
of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the
United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition
of servitude.
Section 2. The
Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
The Voting rights act is authorized by Section 2, say its
supporters.
But if not, how not?
Apparently, because there are no reasonably current data
documenting the need for such heavy intrusion on state authority regarding
voting and elections.
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