The 15th Amendment says in its entirety,
Section 1. The right
of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the
United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition
of servitude.
Section 2. The
Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation
Why is it up to the Supremes to decide whether this is “appropriate
legislation” under the 15th Amendment?
Why isn’t that the congress’s call?
Oh, right.
Because John Marshall said the Supremes have the last word
on deciding the constitutionality of anything and nobody and nothing can
overturn their decision but another supreme court.
Balance of powers?
Really?
Do you really think the framers or ratifiers intended a judicial veto that could not be overridden?
And is such a thing wise?
Do you really think the framers or ratifiers intended a judicial veto that could not be overridden?
And is such a thing wise?
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